Let J⊊I⊆R be non-empty open intervals, and let f1,f2,… be real polynomials satisfying the following conditions:[*] fi(x)≥0 for all i≥1 and x∈I,
[*] i=1∑∞fi(x) is finite for all x∈I,
[*] i=1∑∞fi(x)=1 for all x∈J.Do these conditions imply that i=1∑∞fi(x)=1 also for all x∈I?Proposed by András Imolay, Budapest algebrapolynomialanalysisseries