A sequence {an} satisfies a1 is a positive integer and an+1 is the largest odd integer that divides 2n−1+an for all n⩾1. Given a positive integer r which is greater than 1. Is it possible that there exists infinitely many pairs of ordered positive integers (m,n) for which m>n and am=ran?In other words, if you successfully find an a1 that yields infinitely many pairs of (m,n) which work fine, you win and the answer is YES. Otherwise you have to proof NO for every possible a1.@below, XMO stands for Xueersi Mathematical Olympiad, where Xueersi (学而思) is a famous tutoring camp in China. number theoryDivisibilityChina