Let M>1 be a natural number. Tom and Jerry play a game. Jerry wins if he can produce a function f:N→N satisfying [*]f(M)=M [/*]
[*] f(k)<2k for all k∈N[/*]
[*] ff(n)(n)=n for all n∈N. For each ℓ>0 we define fℓ(n)=f(fℓ−1(n)) and f0(n)=n[/*] Tom wins otherwise. Prove that for infinitely many M, Tom wins, and for infinitely many M, Jerry wins. Proposed by Anant Mudgal functionalgebracombinatorics