MathDB
Putnam 1955 B6

Source:

May 24, 2022
Putnam

Problem Statement

Prove: If f(x)>0f(x) > 0 for all xx and f(x)0f(x) \rightarrow 0 as x,x \rightarrow \infty, then there exists at most a finite number of solutions of f(m)+f(n)+f(p)=1 f(m) + f(n) + f(p) = 1 in positive integers m,n,m, n, and p.p.