Let f be a function from the real numbers to the real numbers such that f(1) \equal{} 1, f(a\plus{}b) \equal{} f(a)\plus{}f(b) for all a,b, and f(x)f \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) \equal{} 1 for all x=0. Prove that f(x) \equal{} x for all real numbers x. functionsearchalgebra unsolvedalgebra